Hi !!!
hi everyone, thanks for letting me join..
Does anyone know what is 'i' to the power 'i'?
Another thing.. someone asked me this question..
Spot the fallacy:
d/dx (x^2)=d/dx(x+x+x+x+x+x.........x times)
=d/dx(x)+d/dx(x)+.....x times
=1+1+1+1+1+1+1.. x times
=x
but d/dx(x^2) = 2x..
How is this possible?
Does anyone know what is 'i' to the power 'i'?
Another thing.. someone asked me this question..
Spot the fallacy:
d/dx (x^2)=d/dx(x+x+x+x+x+x.........x times)
=d/dx(x)+d/dx(x)+.....x times
=1+1+1+1+1+1+1.. x times
=x
but d/dx(x^2) = 2x..
How is this possible?
posted by Swati Gupta at 1:32 PM
6 Comments:
First of all, Welcome.
f(x)=x+x+x+x+x+x.........x times is not defined for non-integers and thus is not a continuous function, which rules out its possibilty of being differentiated. Thus the fault.
great!! what i thought was...this is not possible coz it does not hold true for fractions and other kind of numbers... you put it more mathematically...
You could have also come to this conclusion had you generalised your thoughts of fractions and 'other kind of numbers' as all Real numbers.
i^i = 0.207879576
good... you are right!!!
Prateek, can you please look up the comment on the entry "Probability" and kind of justify your statement about the function not being differentiable...
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